AMA
Let {fk}:Rd→R be a sequence of C1 functions which converges pointwise to 0. Is it true that
limk→+∞infx∈Rd|∇fk(x)|=0?
Let {fk}:Rd→R be a sequence of C1 functions which converges pointwise to 0. Is it true that
limk→+∞infx∈Rd|∇fk(x)|=0?
Do you know this?
Im flying economy
And im seeing @frenchpress and @Thread
get throated
no thts why im asking you
You had an opportunity to impress me, sad
You had an opportunity to impress me, sad
U are the worst questions answerer oat
y the parrot emoji
hndrxx told me
U are the worst questions answerer oat
Ask me something then
Let {fk}:Rd→R be a sequence of C1 functions which converges pointwise to 0. Is it true that
limk→+∞infx∈Rd|∇fk(x)|=0?
wtf u do math echi?
wtf u do math echi?
See I’m not the only one